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Bible question
Since the Bible foretold of Judas’ betrayal of Christ and his ultimate end, does this mean he did not have free will?
Topic(s): Nature of Man
Todd Clippard
All men have free will. This is evident from the numerous
commands found in the Bible. If man does not have the ability to
exercise his free will, what purpose do these commands serve? Why
would God even go to the "trouble" of writing and preserving the
Bible for us all these years if no one has the ability to do
anything about their spiritual condition?
Additionally, there are numerous promises from God to bless those
who obey and punish those who do not (cf Deuteronomy 30:15ff, Acts
10:34-35, etc).
Therefore, Judas exercised his own free will to betray Jesus and
later kill himself.