Topic(s):  Bible Authority, Home, Marriage

Todd Clippard

God's word concerning divorce and remarriage is one which sorely needs to be taught in the church today. As our world becomes more immoral and as marriage becomes less sacred in its eyes, the Lord's church should teach and be taught the truth to an even greater degree. Instead of sitting silently by and watching friends and family members divorce and remarry with supposed impunity from God's wrath and eternal judgment, Christians should sanctify the Lord God in their hearts, always ready to give an answer (1 Peter 3:15) and teach their children diligently in their homes and wherever else they may be (Deuteronomy 6:7).

Many men, with more knowledge and wisdom than I, have faithfully written, lectured, and debated in regard to the subject at hand. This effort is designed to look at what God has revealed in His will concerning marriage, divorce, and remarriage in a scholarly, but conversational manner. It answers objections posed to me in private discussions across the country by members of the Lord's church. It is my prayer this material will help resolve many of the conflicts which arise concerning the subject of divorce and remarriage. (All emphasis mine, JTC.)

In Matthew 19:9, Jesus said, "Whosoever shall put away his wife, except for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery" (see also Matthew 5:31-32). Some contend the adultery committed is a one-time action taking place at the marriage ceremony, arguing about the meaning and duration of the word "committeth". Is the adultery spoken of here a one-time occurrence, or is it a continuous action? Let's take a brief, but technical look at the word in question.

1) "Committeth": literally- keeps on committing, the action of the verb is linear, continuous. (Guy N. Woods, Q & A Open Forum, p. 235)

2) "commits" is in the present tense, and therefore, can be considered as present or habitual action (J.D. Thomas, Divorce and Remarriage, p.15).

Even authorities in the Greek language (the original language of our New Testament) who point out that present tense isn't always progressive (i.e. ongoing action) still admit "The progressive force of the present tense should always be considered primary...," (J.D. Thomas, quoting Dana and Mantey, A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament, pp. 181-182.). The argument, however, does not rest solely on the technical interpretation of "committeth". The following Bible passages clearly and undeniably prove one may live in a continuous state of sin, including adultery.

1) Ephesians 2:1-3 "...you once walked according to the course of this world...," walked denotes a continuous action.

2) Colossians 3:5-7 "...fornication (which includes adultery, JTC), ...in the which ye also walked some time, when ye lived in them."

In 1 Corinthians 6:9-11, we see a list (although by no means exhaustive) of sinful activities. Please note this is actually a list of persons who lived in sinful situations. The apostle Paul plainly states such people cannot "inherit the kingdom of God." He then stresses "such were (in times past, JTC) some of you: but ye are washed,... sanctified,... justified in the name of the Lord Jesus." Did these persons bring their sinful practices into the kingdom, or did they repent of and discontinue them? In other words, what did they do with the former life and practices in order to enter the kingdom? ("And such were some of you." "Were" is used here in the imperfect tense, denoting durative or continuous action in past time [J.D. Thomas, Divorce and Remarriage p. 15]). They obviously ceased from the activities which separated them from God.

QUESTIONS AND OBJECTIONS CONSIDERED

1) "If two people are no longer married, how could it be sinful for them to marry another person?"

1 Corinthians 7:10-11: "Let not the wife depart from her husband, but if she does depart, let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband...." "Unmarried" is from the Greek agameo. Gameo is the Greek word for marriage; adding the prefix "a" makes the word is opposite. (This is similar to our word "theist," meaning one who believes in God, whereas an atheist does not believe in God.) Thus, God uses accommodative language to recognize the separation between the original spouses, but He says the wife still has a lawful husband ("be reconciled to her husband"). This implies no other man may be her lawful husband while the first still lives. Any marriage relationship with another man would be an adulterous one (Romans 7:3), unless the exception given by Jesus in Matthew 19:9 applies to the divorce.

2) "In 1 Corinthians 7, the Bible tells everyone to remain in the state in which he was called. Wouldn’t this apply to marriage?"

Let's look at the verses in question and see if this question is applicable to any marriage. In 1 Corinthians 7:17, we read: "But as God has distributed to every man, as the Lord hath called every one, so let him walk." There is a key word in this passage which we must consider before answering the question.
"Distributed" means to apportion, bestow, or impart (Thayer's Greek/English Lexicon, p. 400). Would anyone have God Almighty to apportion, bestow, or impart immorality? (cf. 1 Corinthians 10:13, James 1:12-17) Previous references to marriage in 1 Corinthians 7:2, 8-15 must be to ones which are not in violation of God's earlier laws concerning marriage. There is nothing indicating that any of these are not with their lawful spouses, and 1 Corinthians 7:10-11 supports this as well.

Bear in mind that to divorce and remarry, apart from fornication, was not adultery due to the permission granted under the old law of Moses (Deuteronomy 24:1; Matthew 19:7-8; Mark 10:3-5). It was apparently the same with the law of the Gentiles (Rom 2:13-15). The Corinthians had an "advantage" that none have today- they lived under two different laws of God. Thus, any marriage spoken of in 1 Corinthians 7 was honorable as long as it was contracted in accordance with God's Word. The admonition by Paul in 1 Corinthians 7:12-14 is not to use one's conversion to leave an honorable/lawful union. This is the first example given in regard to remain in the state in which one was called.

The second example of abiding in one's calling is found in verses 18-20 and deals with (un)circumcision. The third example of abiding in one's calling is found in verses 21-24 and refers to secular servanthood or freedom.

Each instance of abiding in one's calling is in the context of situations which have no bearing on one's salvation. Going back to verse 10, one may be a Christian and be scripturally married to a non-Christian. Having an unbelieving spouse has no effect on the Christian's salvation, just as being circumcised or uncircumcised has no bearing on one's salvation. In the same context, being a slave or being free has no bearing on one's salvation. One may be saved in any of the previous circumstances but one may not be saved while living in adultery (1 Corinthians 6:9-11)!

3) "In 1 Corinthians 7:27-28, the Bible says if you marry, you have not sinned. Doesn't this mean everyone has the right to marry?"

To say all "single" people are eligible for marriage contradicts what Jesus said in Matthew 5:31-32 and 19:3-12, and what Paul (who wrote the Corinthian epistles) said in Romans 7:1-4. The Bible does not contradict itself (1 Corinthians 14:40)! Any marriage or divorce must be in accordance with the Word of God. Knowing this, Paul must be speaking to those who have a scriptural right to marry. Attention must also be given to Paul’s statement in 1 Corinthians 7:26 concerning "the present distress." The author of Hebrews wrote in Hebrews 13:4: "Let marriage be held in honor among all, and let the bed be undefiled, for fornicators and adulterers God will judge." This text, along with the passages in Matthew and Romans, assures us that not everyone has the right to marry.

4) "If my spouse divorces me against my will, and then marries someone else, may I remarry if I have remained faithful to my original marriage vows?"

In 1 Corinthians 7:10-11, Paul wrote if an unscriptural divorce occurs, then the two are to remain unmarried, unless they are reconciled to one another. The Bible provides only two situations where one may remarry without sin: the death of the first spouse (Romans 7:1-4) and fornication prior to the divorce (Matthew 19:9).

In Mark 10 and Luke 16, we have parallel accounts of Christ's teaching on divorce and remarriage. In Luke 16:18, Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband doth commit adultery." In Mark 10:11-12, Jesus said, "Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her. And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery."

5) "If God did not recognize the union as being lawful, why did He call it 'marriage?'"

This is answered somewhat in previous statements made concerning accommodative language. God does indeed "recognize" two types of relationships: lawful and unlawful. How does one who puts his wife away, except for fornication, and marries another commit adultery? If God no longer considered the original spouses joined, shouldn't it be called fornication? This shows that even the phrase, "and marries another" is accommodative. Two people who are scripturally eligible for marriage, by definition, cannot commit adultery by marrying one other. (Matthew 5:31-32; 19:9). Only when one or both parties are scripturally bound to someone else can adultery occur. God recognizes two types of marriages: those which are holy between two eligible candidates, and those which have one or two improper candidates (i.e., an "unholy" marriage, Mark 6:17-18, Romans 7:2-3). Once again, as seen in Mark 6:17-18, Herod's marriage to Herodias was unholy, violating God's law concerning incest as seen in Leviticus 18:16. God "recognized" their marriage. Does this mean that God approved of their relationship? There can be no doubt the union needed to be dissolved before either one of them could stand approved before God. If their union was lawful, then by whose authority did John the Baptist condemn it? Remember Hebrews 13:4! If all marriages are honorable, upon what basis did John the Baptist condemn Herod's? The inspired account of Mark 6:17-18 "recognizes" (speaks of) a marriage, but denies its right to exist with God's approval.

6) 2 Corinthians 5:17 says "if any be in Christ, he is new creature." Does this mean unscripturally divorced and remarried couples can remain married if they are later baptized, or that unscripturally divorced singles can remarry after baptism?

To be "in Christ" is to be buried with him by baptism (Romans 6:4; Galations 3:27). To have a scriptural baptism, one must repent, that is, "turn to God". One cannot turn to God without turning away from the sinful conduct separating them from God. Just as fornicators, homosexuals, drunkards, liars, and such like cannot continue in their sinful ways, neither can adulterers (1 Cor 6:9). Turning from sin must include termination of sinful conduct, else where is the bringing forth of fruits (performing deeds worthy) of repentance (Matthew 3:8, Acts 26:20)? We realize we all sin and sometimes repeat sins previously committed or even lived in (e.g. drunkenness).

If a man were a drunkard and repented of that sin, repeating the sin of drunkenness at some point does not mean he continues to live in that particular sin. He may repent and try not to repeat the sin again. However, he could not truly obey the gospel thinking he can continue to live as a drunkard. In a similar fashion, how can a person repent of the adultery he is living in and continue to live with the very person who shares the same sin? We would expect the drunkard to change his lifestyle, not frequenting bars or other places which served alcoholic beverages. In the same way, the adulterer must leave the relationship which causes him to be separated from God. Regardless of the argument used, if one makes exceptions for adulterers, then one must make exceptions for all others, especially those mentioned in 1 Corinthians 6:9-10.

Look at Romans 7:3 again, "...if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress..." Is there any indication that baptism would change her unholy relationship into a holy one? How long is this woman to be called an adulteress? What are the conditions set forth which cause her to be called an adulteress? (1) Her lawful husband is still living, and (2) She is married to another man. If she is baptized, do these conditions still exist? Yes! If we, in like fashion, are married to Christ (Romans 7:4) and forsake that marriage, are we not in a continuous state of adultery in regard to our relationship with Christ? May we "repent" and be rightly joined to any other than Christ? May we "repent" and continue in the relationship which separates us from Christ? God forbid!

7) "God's laws concerning divorce and remarriage apply only to Christians, and not to non-Christians."

Some have contended that only God's teaching on the plan of salvation will apply to non-Christians at the judgment. However, Jesus said in John 12:48, "He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day." The non-Christian will be judged by all the words of our Lord in the judgment, just as the Christian will be. Of course, one's failure to obey the gospel will be sufficient to condemn his soul
(2 Thessalonians 1:7-9), but Jesus makes it perfectly clear that we shall be judged according to everything He has said. Consider this point: If the non-Christian is only answerable to Christ's teaching on the plan of salvation, then a non-Christian would not sin by lying, stealing, cheating, or committing rape or murder. This defies our own God-given sense of right and wrong, and is in violation of the clear teaching of Jesus Christ.

8) "Can the spouse which is put away for fornication repent and remarry? And if not, wouldn't this make adultery the unforgivable sin?"

Adultery is not the unforgivable sin. According to Matthew 12:31-32, blasphemy against the Holy Spirit is the only unforgivable sin, and is a separate topic for another time.

The spouse who is put away for fornication is commanded by God to repent, as are all men (Luke 13:3, 5). However, repentance does not magically erase all consequences for wrongdoing. For example, in Joshua 6 and 7, the Israelites were commanded by God not to personally take of the spoils of the city of Jericho (6:18-19). Achan sinned against the word of the Lord in Joshua 7:1 by taking spoils of the accursed things. Upon questioning by Joshua, Achan confessed his sin before all the people, but then he and his family were stoned to death and burned with fire, along with all their possessions. Achan's confession of sin did not absolve him or his family from the impending punishment.

To allow the party guilty of fornication to remarry places him on an equal plane with the innocent party. There would be no consequence for his sin. This theory is in conflict with what Jesus said in Matthew 19:9. Jesus allowed only the innocent (faithful) party to remarry. He was silent concerning the right of the guilty party, so why would we assume their rights are the same as those innocent of marital infidelity? Such reasoning defies both logic and scripture. The guilty party who has been put away is expected to repent, but is also expected to remain unmarried, unless reconciliation is made with the original spouse (1 Corinthians 7:10-11).

9) "God would not want two people to dissolve their marriage if they were happy, especially if children are involved."

While this argument provokes much emotional response, we nevertheless must look at what God has said He wants, what He hates, and what He commands. Look at what was done by the men of Israel in Ezra 10 when they had taken wives who were unlawful for them to take. They had, by their own admission, trespassed against God by taking strange wives unto themselves (v 2). They put their wives away from them "according to the law" (v 3) and unto the pleasure of God (v 11). The sons of the priests who had taken unlawful wives did the same (vv 18-19). All the Israelite men did this, even though children were involved (vv 3, 44). It would be illogical to believe none of these marriages were happy ones, but because they were unlawful, they had to be dissolved according to the Word of God. These men were not guilty of any sexual sin (such as adultery), but they were in violation of God's law concerning marriage and therefore had to make amends in their repentance. (In my opinion, it would also be unreasonable to think a father or mother who dissolves an unlawful marriage would be totally absolved of any child-raising responsibilities, Ephesians 6:4.)

10) "The only marriages the Bible says must be dissolved are those involving incest (Mark 6:14-29; 1 Corinthians 5:1-5)."

Herod was in violation of God's law concerning incest and not adultery (Mark 6:18; Leviticus 18:16), but the reference in 1 Corinthians 5 is an injunction against fornication (vv 1, 9-13). Fornication is a general term which includes all sexual sins. In 1 Corinthians 5:1-5, incest is specified to show the extent of the Corinthians' tolerance of sexual sins. Also, remember the law we live under today is the law of Christ, and not that of Moses. We may, however, use the Old Testament as a guiding principle and in learning the mind of God (Romans 15:4). Consider this: There is also no specific command for homosexual relationships and/or marriages to be dissolved, yet will we argue that those guilty of such may continue in them and be pleasing to God?

11) "Malachi 2:16 says God hates divorce, and if God hates divorce, then two wrongs won't make a right."

God does indeed hate divorce, but that does not mean all divorce is sinful. I believe God hates all divorces, if for no other reason, because He understands the pain and heartache associated with divorce. However, God allows for it in specific cases, and in the cases seen Ezra 10, Mark 6, and 1 Corinthians 5-6, He commands it. Jesus gave provisions for divorce in Matthew 19:9 and Paul gave provisions should divorce take place in 1 Corinthians 7:10-11. As much as God hates divorce, He hates sin more! Anyone who is living in adultery must separate in order to live right before God.
In conclusion, it is important to note unscriptural relationships must be dissolved according to God's Word by all three methods of ascertaining biblical authority: direct statement (1 Corinthians 5), example (Ezra 10), and implication (1 Corinthians 6:9-11). God need only speak once in His holy word in order to teach man His will, but the principles studied here are clearly taught time and again.

Despite what is taught and thought by many, God does not guarantee everyone the right to a happy, fulfilling sexual relationship. Some must become eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom, the church (Matt 19:11-12). It is our earnest prayer and desire that everyone will resolve to live in accordance with God's will, regardless of the earthly consequences: "For I reckon that the sufferings of this present time are not worthy to be compared with the glory which shall be revealed in us" (Romans 8:18).

QUESTIONS FOR CONSIDERATION.

What is sin? (1 John 3:4)

2. Who has sinned? (Romans 3:23)

3. What are the wages/consequences of sin? (Romans 6:23)

4. Is marriage a legal contract only? ______ Is it a church ordinance restricted to Christians only? _______ Is it God's eternal plan for the homes of all mankind?
________ (Consider Genesis 2:7,18-25; Matthew 19:4-6; Romans 7:1-4.)

5. What is fornication?

6. What is adultery?

7. Is the "marrying of an improperly divorced person" adultery? Matthew 5:31-32, 19:9 _______

8. Can a non-Christian commit: fornication? _________ adultery? __________

9. Can one live in a continuous state of adultery? Romans 7:2-3; 1 Corinthians 6:9-11; Colossians 3:5-7 ______

HOLY vs. UNHOLY RELATIONSHIPS

Which of the following relationships would God view as unholy or unlawful? (YES or NO)

polygamy? _____ _____

incest? _____ _____

"open" marriage? (i.e., free to "fool around") _____ _____

fornication (living together)? _____ _____

homosexual? _____ _____

adultery? _____ _____

If a person were living in any of these situations and wanted to become a Christian, in which could they remain following their baptism? If any, why? Please remember! There is no example or precedent in which baptism changed any of these unholy relationships into one approved by God.

It is my prayer the material presented here has been of some benefit to you. This is a topic of vital importance and eternal consequence. The verses cited are by no means exhaustive concerning divorce and remarriage. I encourage you to study this matter further and in greater detail. I also realize every conceivable situation is not addressed. However, the Bible has given us clearly defined principles to help us come to the proper conclusions concerning any situation of any kind.

The Bible is God's holy, inspired word (2 Timothy 3:15-16). The Bible makes man complete, thoroughly furnishing him unto every good work (2 Timothy 3:17). In the Bible, God has given us everything pertaining unto life and godliness (2 Peter 1:3). We must therefore respect God and His will for us. May God help us to this end.